Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is NOT correct ?

The Treaty of Allahabad, signed in August 1765 following the Battle of Buxar, consisted of two separate agreements [2]. Under the treaty with the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, the Company was granted the Diwani rights (revenue collection) for Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa via a formal farman [2]. In the treaty with Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh, the British restored his kingdom except for the districts of Allahabad and Kara, which were ceded to Shah Alam II [2]. The Nawab also agreed to pay a war indemnity of Rs. 50 lakhs [1]. Statement 4 is incorrect because Banaras and its surrounding tracts were not handed over to Shah Alam II; instead, the treaty confirmed the possession of the estate to the Zamindar of Banaras, Balwant Singh, who was to remain under the protection of the Company while paying revenue to the Nawab [1].

Sources

1. [1] Rajiv Ahir. A Brief History of Modern India (2019 ed.). SPECTRUM. > Chapter 5: Expansion and Consolidation of British Power in India > The Treaty of Allahabad > p. 92
2. [2] Modern India ,Bipin Chandra, History class XII (NCERT 1982 ed.)[Old NCERT] > Chapter 4: The British Conquest of India > Courtesy; National Archives of India, New Delhi > p. 70