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Consider the following statements about the literary language Apabhramsha : 1. It appeared in recognizable forms by the sixth century. 2. It developed out of mixtures of regional vernaculars with the Prakrits and Sanskrit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Explanation
Apabhramsha emerged as a recognized literary language by the sixth century [3]. Historical evidence includes an inscription by King Dharasena II of Valabhi (c. 571 CE), which describes his father as an expert in Sanskrit, Prakrit, and Apabhramsha poetry [3]. Additionally, the prosodist Bhamaha (6th-7th century) categorized poetry into these three distinct languages [3]. Linguistically, Apabhramsha represents the final stage of Middle Indo-Aryan development, evolving from the various regional Prakrits (such as Shauraseni and Magadhi) through a process of corruption or deviation from standard Sanskrit [2]. It developed through the interaction of regional vernaculars with established Prakrits and Sanskrit, incorporating 'deshya' (provincial) elements alongside 'tatsama' and 'tadbhava' words. This linguistic synthesis eventually paved the way for modern Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi and Marathi [2].
Sources
- [3] https://ora.ox.ac.uk/objects/uuid:57bd655c-ad14-4b6c-adfc-a6ec276b23de/files/sx346d6187
- [1] https://www.britannica.com/topic/Apabhramsha-language
- [2] https://www.sanskrit.nic.in/about_sanskrit.php
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